49 FAA-published questions · answers explained · free, no signup
Private Pilot Helicopter Written Test Questions and Answers
The FAA Private Pilot Helicopter knowledge test (PRH) has 60 scored questions with three answer choices each, a 2-hour limit and a 70% passing score. Below are all 49 sample questions the FAA published for it, with the official sectional chart figures, the correct answer and a cited explanation for each.
What the PRH test checks, and where these questions come from
The PRH shares its regulations, airspace, weather and charts with the airplane test, but the weights are different. Under the PSI bulletin, Emergency Operations carries 23% of the questions, against 7% on the airplane PAR: autorotation, settling with power, dynamic rollover and loss of tail rotor effectiveness are the core of that area. Preflight Preparation is another 25%. Chart questions use the same supplement as the airplane test, FAA-CT-8080-2H.
These are all 49 questions in the FAA's August 2021 PRH sample test. Airport and heliport operations, airspace and radio communications lead the sample; helicopter-specific aerodynamics comes from the FAA Helicopter Flying Handbook, which the explanations cite.
US airspace classes, in 3D
Class A18,000 MSL – FL600
Class BSFC – 10,000 MSL
Class CSFC – 4,000 AGL
Class DSFC – 2,500 AGL
Surface Efrom the surface
Class Efrom 700 or 1,200 AGL
Class Gbelow the E floor
Heights not to scale. Typical dimensions: the sectional chart shows each airspace's actual floor and ceiling. Sources: 14 CFR 71 and 91, AIM chapter 3.
US airspace classes at a glance
Class
Vertical limits
To fly VFR in it
Class A
18,000 ft MSL up to and including FL600
IFR only: instrument rating and IFR clearance (14 CFR 91.135)
Class B
Surface to 10,000 ft MSL (typical), upside-down wedding cake
ATC clearance to enter; private pilot certificate or student endorsement (91.131)
Class C
Surface to 4,000 ft AGL in a 5 NM core; 10 NM shelf from 1,200 ft AGL (typical)
Two-way radio communication established before entering (91.130)
Class D
Surface to 2,500 ft AGL (typical); charted ceiling in feet MSL
Two-way radio communication established before entering (91.129)
Class E
From the surface, 700 ft AGL or 1,200 ft AGL up to but not including 18,000 ft MSL; and above FL600
No ATC contact required for VFR; VFR weather minimums apply (91.155)
Class G
From the surface up to the floor of the overlying Class E
No ATC contact required; VFR weather minimums apply (91.155)
How to read the sectional chart symbols the test asks about
Schematic sectional excerpt, not for navigation. Symbols per the FAA Aeronautical Chart User's Guide.
1
Class D ceiling box
The dashed blue ring is Class D. [38] is its ceiling in hundreds of feet MSL: 3,800 ft MSL, about 2,500 ft above this 1,340 ft field. A minus sign ([-38]) means up to but not including that altitude.
2
Class C ceilings and floors
Solid magenta rings are Class C, labeled ceiling over floor in hundreds of feet MSL. 40/SFC: the inner core runs from the surface to 4,000 ft MSL. 40/12: the outer shelf runs from 1,200 to 4,000 ft MSL.
3
Airport data block
Blue type means a control tower. CT – 118.3 is the tower frequency, the star marks a part-time tower and the circled C marks 118.3 as the CTAF when the tower is closed. 1340 is the field elevation in feet MSL, L runway lights sunset to sunrise, 72 the longest runway (7,200 ft) and 122.95 the UNICOM.
4
Maximum Elevation Figure (MEF)
3⁵ means 3,500 ft MSL: the highest terrain or obstacle in this latitude-longitude quadrangle (here the 3,150 ft peak) plus a safety allowance, rounded up to the next 100 ft.
5
Obstruction height
1549 (304): the top of the obstruction is 1,549 ft MSL and 304 ft above the ground. This symbol is used for obstructions under 1,000 ft AGL.
49 Private Pilot Helicopter questions with answers
Try each one, then open the answer. Grouped by topic; jump to one:
All 8 the FAA published on this topic for this test.
1
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 47.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is
Each VASI light unit shows white in the upper part of its beam and red in the lower part (AIM 2-1-2). On a 2-bar VASI, seeing red on both the near and far bars (illustration D in Figure 47: all six lights red) means the aircraft is below the glide path. Red over white is on the glide path, and white over white is above it.
A left turn at this intersection would place the aircraft
Sample test figureRunway holding position sign (26-8)FAA-CT-8080-2H · Sport, Recreational, Private & Remote Pilot supplement
Aready for a runway 26 intersection takeoff.
Bon the taxiway leading to runway 26.
Cready for a runway 8 intersection takeoff.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. ready for a runway 8 intersection takeoff.
On a runway holding position sign such as '26-8', AIM 2-3-8 explains that the number on the left is the runway whose threshold lies to the left. Turning left therefore takes you toward the runway 26 threshold, which means you are pointed in the direction of runway 8 and ready for a runway 8 intersection takeoff. The sign marks the runway itself, not a taxiway leading to it.
Sample test figureRunway holding position sign (22)FAA-CT-8080-2H · Sport, Recreational, Private & Remote Pilot supplement
Arunway 22.
Brouting to runway 22.
Ctaxiway 22.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. runway 22.
The sign shows yellow '22' on a black background with a yellow border, the format of a runway location sign. AIM 2-3-9 says its inscription is the designation of the runway on which the aircraft is located, so it confirms you are on Runway 22. A sign routing you toward a runway would be a direction or destination sign (black on yellow, with an arrow). Taxiways are identified by letters, not numbers.
Sample test figureTaxiway location sign (B)FAA-CT-8080-2H · Sport, Recreational, Private & Remote Pilot supplement
Aconfirms the aircraft's location to be on taxiway "B."
Bwarns the pilot of approaching taxiway "B."
Cindicates "B" holding area is ahead.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. confirms the aircraft's location to be on taxiway "B."
A black sign with a yellow inscription and yellow border is a taxiway location sign; AIM 2-3-9 says it identifies the taxiway on which the aircraft is located, here taxiway B. Direction signs (yellow with black letters and arrows) point to upcoming taxiways.
A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
Ataxi at a faster speed.
Btaxi only on taxiways and not cross runways.
Creturn to the starting point on the airport.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. return to the starting point on the airport.
In the light-signal table of 14 CFR 91.125 and AIM 4-3-13, a flashing white light directed to an aircraft on the ground means 'return to starting point on airport'; it has no meaning for an aircraft in flight. There is no light signal instructing a pilot to taxi faster or to avoid crossing runways.
Aa runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.
Ba hold line from a taxiway to a runway.
Cthe beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. a runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.
AIM 2-3-3 describes the yellow demarcation bar as a marking that delineates a runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway. Hold lines are the runway holding position markings, and the landing threshold is marked by the white threshold bar.
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
ARunway identification and course guidance.
BSafe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
CLateral course guidance to the runway.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
AIM 2-1-2 says the VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within about 10 degrees of the extended runway centerline out to 4 nautical miles, when the pilot stays on the visual glide path. It does not provide runway identification or lateral course guidance.
Which is appropriate for a helicopter approaching an airport for landing?
ARemain below the airplane traffic pattern altitude.
BAvoid the flow of fixed-wing traffic.
CFly right-hand traffic.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Avoid the flow of fixed-wing traffic.
The AIM advises helicopters approaching an airport to avoid the flow of fixed-wing traffic, using separate approach paths and landing areas where possible. There is no rule that helicopters fly below airplane pattern altitude or always use right-hand traffic; the pattern depends on the airport.
On Figure 20, Fentress NALF (NFE), south of Norfolk near Great Bridge, is enclosed by a magenta dashed line, which the Aeronautical Chart User's Guide defines as a Class E surface area. The solid magenta rings of the Norfolk Class C airspace pass north of the field, so NFE is not in Class C. Because controlled airspace extends to the surface there, it is not Class G either.
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is
A1 mile.
B3 miles.
C5 miles.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. 1 mile.
Outside controlled airspace is Class G. The 14 CFR 91.155(a) table gives, for Class G more than 1,200 feet above the surface but below 10,000 feet MSL, a day flight visibility of 1 statute mile (with 500 below, 1,000 above and 2,000 feet horizontal from clouds). 3 miles is the night value there (and the Class C, D and E value below 10,000 MSL), and 5 miles applies at or above 10,000 feet MSL.
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
A500 feet.
B1,000 feet.
C1,500 feet.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. 500 feet.
In Class G airspace more than 1,200 feet above the surface but below 10,000 feet MSL, 14 CFR 91.155(a) requires at night 3 statute miles visibility and cloud clearance of 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above and 2,000 feet horizontal. 1,000 feet is the required distance above clouds, and 1,500 feet is not a value in the table.
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
AClass C.
BClass E.
CClass G.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Class C.
14 CFR 91.130(c) requires each person to establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing air traffic services before entering Class C airspace and to maintain them while within it. VFR flight in Class E or Class G airspace (away from a towered airport) requires no ATC communication.
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
AObtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.
BOperate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.
CExercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
AIM 3-4-5 states that pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while flying within a MOA when military activity is being conducted, and recommends contacting the controlling agency for traffic advisories before entering an active MOA. A clearance is not required for VFR flight in a MOA, and there is no rule limiting VFR aircraft to airways through it.
The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally
A10 NM.
B20 NM.
C30 NM.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. 20 NM.
AIM 3-2-4 describes the Class C outer area as a procedural area whose normal radius is 20 NM from the primary airport, where approach control provides services to participating aircraft. The 10 NM figure is the normal radius of the Class C shelf area, and 30 NM is the Class B Mode C veil, not a Class C dimension.
Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?
ALanding at an airport with an operating control tower.
BOverflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
CFlying under the shelf of Class C airspace.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
14 CFR 91.225(d)(3) requires ADS-B Out above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of a Class B or Class C airspace area, up to 10,000 feet MSL. Overflying Class C below 10,000 feet MSL therefore requires ADS-B Out. Flying beneath a Class C shelf is outside Class C and outside that overlying area, so it is not covered unless another paragraph applies, such as a Class B Mode C veil. Landing at a towered (Class D) airport does not in itself require ADS-B.
Ten of the questions on this page in random order, one at a time. No peeking at the answers above.
Question 1 of 10 · Aeromedical factorsScore 0
A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as
Radio communications questions
All 6 the FAA published on this topic for this test.
16
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 52.) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
AMonitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.
BContact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories.
CMonitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.
The Lincoln Chart Supplement entry lists CTAF 118.5, the same frequency as the tower, which operates only 1130-0600Z. When the tower is closed, AIM 4-1-9 calls for pilots to monitor the CTAF and self-announce position and intentions on it, so reports go out on 118.5 MHz. The UNICOM frequency 122.95 is for airport services and advisories, not the CTAF at this airport.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 52.) When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing, initial communications should be with
Correct answer: A. Lincoln Approach Control on 124.0 MHz.
At noon local time (1700-1800Z), Lincoln's Class C airspace is in effect (service 1130-0600Z). The Chart Supplement says to contact Approach Control. 14 CFR 91.130(c)(1) requires two-way radio communication with the ATC facility providing air traffic services before entering Class C. An aircraft west of the field lies in the 180-359 degree sector, whose approach frequency is 124.0 MHz. The tower is contacted later, when approach hands you off. Minneapolis Center is not the facility that serves this Class C airspace.
Select the UNICOM frequencies normally assigned to stations at landing areas used exclusively as heliports.
A122.75 and 123.65 MHz.
B123.0 and 122.95 MHz.
C123.05 and 123.075 MHz.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 123.05 and 123.075 MHz.
The AIM 4-1-11 frequency table lists 123.050 and 123.075 MHz as the UNICOM frequencies for landing areas used exclusively as heliports. 122.95 is used at airports with a control tower or FSS, and 123.0 and 122.75 are other UNICOM/air-to-air assignments.
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?
A7200
B7000
C7500
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 7500
AIM 4-1-20 says that during routine code changes pilots should avoid inadvertently selecting codes 7500, 7600 or 7700, which would trigger momentary false alarms at automated ground facilities. 7500 is the hijack code, so it must not be passed through by accident. 7000 and 7200 are ordinary codes with no emergency meaning. For example, when changing from 2700 to 7200, go to 2200 first and then to 7200.
The correct method of stating 5,500 feet MSL to ATC is
AFIVE POINT FIVE.
BFIFTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL.
CFIVE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. FIVE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.
AIM 4-2-9 says that below 18,000 feet MSL you state the separate digits of the thousands plus the hundreds if appropriate; the AIM example is 12,500 as 'one two thousand five hundred.' So 5,500 feet is 'five thousand five hundred.' 'Five point five' and 'fifty-five hundred' are not standard phraseology.
All 5 the FAA published on this topic for this test.
22
Ground resonance is most likely to develop when
Aon the ground and harmonic vibrations develop between the main and tail rotors.
Ba series of shocks causes the rotor system to become unbalanced.
Cthere is a combination of a decrease in the angle of attack on the advancing blade and an increase in the angle of attack on the retreating blade.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. a series of shocks causes the rotor system to become unbalanced.
The Helicopter Flying Handbook explains that ground resonance occurs on the ground when a series of shocks (for example a hard landing on one skid or gear) unbalances the rotor system and the oscillation builds through the landing gear. It is not a main/tail rotor harmonic, and the change in angle of attack between advancing and retreating blades describes dissymmetry of lift.
What action should the pilot take if engine failure occurs at altitude?
AOpen the throttle as the collective pitch is raised.
BReduce cyclic back stick pressure during turns.
CLower the collective pitch control, as necessary, to maintain rotor RPM.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Lower the collective pitch control, as necessary, to maintain rotor RPM.
After an engine failure the pilot must immediately lower the collective to reduce blade pitch and drag so that the upward airflow keeps the rotor turning, maintaining rotor RPM in autorotation (Helicopter Flying Handbook). Opening the throttle does nothing without the engine, and raising collective would bleed rotor RPM.
The lift differential that exists between the advancing main rotor blade and the retreating main rotor blade is known as
Atransverse flow effect.
Bdissymmetry of lift.
Chunting tendency.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. dissymmetry of lift.
In forward flight the advancing blade meets a higher relative wind than the retreating blade, and the resulting difference in lift across the rotor disk is called dissymmetry of lift (Helicopter Flying Handbook). Transverse flow effect is a lift difference between the front and rear of the disk, and hunting is a blade's lead-lag movement.
If the pilot were to make a near-vertical power approach into a confined area with the airspeed near zero, what hazardous condition may develop?
AGround resonance when ground contact is made.
BA settling-with-power condition.
CBlade stall vibration could develop.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. A settling-with-power condition.
A near-vertical descent with power and near-zero airspeed is the classic setting for settling with power (vortex ring state), in which the helicopter settles into its own downwash and adding power increases the sink rate. Ground resonance needs ground contact with an unbalanced rotor, and retreating blade stall is a high-speed phenomenon.
The four forces acting on a helicopter in flight are
Alift, drag, thrust, and weight.
Blift, weight, gravity, and thrust.
Clift, gravity, power, and friction.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. lift, drag, thrust, and weight.
As with airplanes, the four forces acting on a helicopter in flight are lift, weight, thrust and drag. Gravity produces weight, so listing both double-counts it, and power and friction are not among the four forces.
All 5 the FAA published on this topic for this test.
27
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?
AGyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
BAirplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
CSingle-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
For airman certification, 14 CFR 61.5(b)(1) lists the aircraft category ratings: airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air, powered-lift, powered parachute and weight-shift-control aircraft. Gyroplane, helicopter, airship and free balloon are classes within the rotorcraft and lighter-than-air categories, and single-engine/multiengine land and sea are airplane class ratings (61.5(b)(2)).
Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of
Aall passengers.
Bthe pilot in command.
Cthe right seat pilot.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. the pilot in command.
14 CFR 91.107(a) prohibits taking off unless the pilot in command ensures that each person on board has been briefed on how to fasten and unfasten the safety belt and shoulder harness, and has been told to fasten it for surface movement, takeoff and landing. The duty belongs to the PIC, not to the passengers themselves or to whoever occupies the right seat.
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
A3312.5 hours.
B3395.5 hours.
C3402.5 hours.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 3402.5 hours.
14 CFR 91.409(b) allows the 100-hour limit to be exceeded by up to 10 hours only to reach a place where the inspection can be done, and the excess time must be included in computing the next 100 hours. The next inspection is therefore still based on the original due time: 3302.5 + 100 = 3402.5 hours, not 3309.5 + 100 = 3409.5. 3312.5 is just the 10-hour ferry allowance, and 3395.5 subtracts the overrun twice.
Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding
A90 days.
B60 days.
C30 days.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. 90 days.
Under 14 CFR 61.57(a), to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers you must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days, as sole manipulator of the controls, in an aircraft of the same category, class and type (if a type rating is required). 30 and 60 days are not periods used in this regulation.
The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?
A5
B7
C10
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. 10
49 CFR 830.15(a) requires the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident to file a written report with the NTSB within 10 days after the accident. 7 days is the deadline for an overdue aircraft that is still missing, and 5 days is not in Part 830.
All 4 the FAA published on this topic for this test.
32
The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
Astronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
Bfriction between the wind and the surface.
Cstronger Coriolis force at the surface.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. friction between the wind and the surface.
Above the friction layer, wind blows nearly parallel to the isobars as pressure gradient and Coriolis force balance. Within roughly the lowest 2,000 feet, friction with the surface slows the wind, which weakens the Coriolis force. The wind then turns toward lower pressure, which is why a southwesterly wind aloft becomes more southerly at the surface (PHAK Ch. 12). Coriolis force is weaker, not stronger, at the surface, and the pressure gradient is not what causes the directional change.
When there is a temperature inversion, you would expect to experience
Aclouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft.
Bgood visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft.
Can increase in temperature as altitude increases.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. an increase in temperature as altitude increases.
A temperature inversion is by definition a layer in which temperature increases as altitude increases (PHAK Ch. 12). The warm layer on top acts as a lid on stable air, trapping haze, smoke and fog, so visibility is typically poor below the inversion and better above it, the reverse of the other visibility statement. Inversions go with stable air, not with clouds of extensive vertical development.
When moist, stable air is forced up sloping terrain, it cools until it condenses. Because stable air resists vertical motion, the result is a layered, stratus-type cloud or upslope fog (PHAK Ch. 12). Showers, thunderstorms and convective turbulence come from lifting unstable air, not stable air.
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
Astability of the air mass.
Btype of precipitation.
Cwind direction.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. wind direction.
A front always lies in a trough of low pressure, so crossing it always brings a change in wind direction (PHAK Chapter 12). The type of precipitation and the stability of the air may or may not change.
All 3 the FAA published on this topic for this test.
36
A lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the aircraft in space is defined as
Aspatial disorientation.
Bhyperventilation.
Chypoxia.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. spatial disorientation.
PHAK defines spatial disorientation as the lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude or movement of the aircraft in space. Hyperventilation is excessive breathing and hypoxia is oxygen deficiency.
A pilot experiencing the effects of hyperventilation should be able to restore the proper carbon dioxide level in the body by
Aslowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud.
Bbreathing spontaneously and deeply or gaining mental control of the situation.
Cincreasing the breathing rate in order to increase lung ventilation.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud.
Hyperventilation is an excessive loss of carbon dioxide caused by breathing too fast or too deeply. PHAK Ch. 17 lists the cure as slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a paper bag, or talking aloud, and AIM 8-1-3 likewise says symptoms subside once breathing is brought back under control and that breathing into a paper bag speeds the rebuilding of CO2. Breathing more deeply or faster would make the CO2 deficit worse.
Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should
Anot exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second.
Bbe 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds.
Cuse peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second.
AIM 8-1-6 describes daytime scanning as a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into central (foveal) vision. Each movement should not exceed 10 degrees, and each area should be observed for at least 1 second so that targets can be detected. Thirty-degree sweeps are too wide for the narrow foveal field. Off-center viewing is the technique for night vision, not daytime scanning.
Next to area 5 on Figure 25, the navaid symbol at Dallas/Ft. Worth International is a hexagon with a center dot enclosed in a square, which the Aeronautical Chart User's Guide identifies as a VOR/DME. A plain VOR is a hexagon without the square, and a VORTAC is a hexagon with three small rectangles attached to alternate sides.
Correct answer: B. Northwest approximately 1 mile.
In the Chart Supplement, the item after the airport identifier gives the airport's distance in nautical miles and direction from the associated city. For Loup City Muni (0F4) it reads '1 NW', so the airport is about 1 mile northwest of the city. None of the entries places it northeast 3 miles or east 7 miles.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 75, west of area 6.) During preflight planning, your course is plotted to fly through R-2305. Where would you find additional information regarding this airspace?
BIn the Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport Facility Directory).
COn the Sectional Chart in the Special Use Airspace area.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. On the Sectional Chart in the Special Use Airspace area.
Sectional charts carry a Special Use Airspace table listing each restricted area such as R-2305 with its altitudes, times of use, controlling agency and frequency. The AIM explains restricted areas in general but does not list them, and the Chart Supplement does not contain that table.
On the Figure 4 airspeed indicator, as PHAK Chapter 8 explains, the red radial line marks the never-exceed speed (VNE). The top of the green arc is the maximum structural cruising speed (VNO) and the top of the white arc is the maximum flap-extended speed (VFE).
If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
Alower than the actual altitude above sea level.
Bhigher than the actual altitude above sea level.
Cthe actual altitude above sea level.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
Flying from high into lower pressure without resetting the altimeter makes it read higher than the actual altitude above sea level, because the instrument interprets the lower pressure as greater height ('high to low, look out below'). The aircraft is actually lower than indicated.
Decision making and risk, Aerodynamics, Flight operations, Navigation, Performance, Weather reports and forecasts. All 6 the FAA published on these topics for this test.
44
What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity?
ADo it quickly to get it over with.
BIt could happen to me.
CNot so fast, think first.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Not so fast, think first.
PHAK Chapter 2 pairs the hazardous attitude of impulsivity ('Do something quickly!') with the antidote 'Not so fast. Think first.' 'It could happen to me' is the antidote for invulnerability, and 'do it quickly' is the impulsive attitude itself.
AFor every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
BAn additional upward force is generated as the lower surface of the airfoil deflects air downward.
CAir traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.
Bernoulli's principle says that as the velocity of a moving fluid increases, its pressure decreases (PHAK Ch. 4). Air flowing faster over the curved upper surface of the wing therefore has lower pressure than the air below, and that pressure difference produces lift. The action/reaction statement is Newton's third law, and the downward deflection of air by the lower surface is also a Newtonian explanation of lift, not Bernoulli's principle.
The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating
Ain Class B airspace.
Bin conditions of reduced visibility.
Cwithin 15 miles of a towered airport.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. in conditions of reduced visibility.
Under the FAA's voluntary 'Operation Lights On' program, AIM 4-3-24 encourages pilots to turn on landing lights below 10,000 feet, day or night. It singles out operations within 10 miles of any airport, in conditions of reduced visibility, and in areas where flocks of birds may be expected. The AIM does not single out Class B airspace, and its distance is 10 miles of any airport, not 15 miles of a towered airport.
How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots?
A14.25 NM.
B15.00 NM.
C14.50 NM.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. 14.25 NM.
Distance = groundspeed x time. At 114 knots the aircraft covers 114/60 = 1.9 NM per minute, so in 7.5 minutes it travels 1.9 x 7.5 = 14.25 NM (PHAK Ch. 16). 15.00 NM would correspond to 120 knots, and 14.50 NM does not match the given speed and time.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 8.) What is the effect of a temperature increase from 35 to 50°F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 3,000 feet MSL?
On Figure 8, follow the 3,000-foot pressure altitude line. At 35 degrees F it is at about 1,900 feet density altitude, and at 50 degrees F about 2,850-2,900 feet. The difference is roughly +960 feet, about a 1,000-foot increase, which matches the usual rule that density altitude rises about 65 feet per degree F. Warmer air always raises density altitude, so a decrease is impossible, and 1,300 feet overstates the chart's change.
(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?
FAA Figure 17Winds and temperatures aloft forecast (FB)FAA-CT-8080-2H · Sport, Recreational, Private & Remote Pilot supplement
A230° true at 56 knots.
B230° true at 39 knots.
C230° magnetic at 56 knots.
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. 230° true at 39 knots.
In Figure 17 the STL entry under 12,000 feet is 2339-04: 23 = 230 degrees, 39 = 39 knots, and -04 = minus 4 degrees Celsius. Winds and temperatures aloft forecasts give direction relative to true north, so the forecast is 230 degrees true at 39 knots. 56 knots is the 18,000-foot value (2356-16), and the direction is not magnetic.
How many questions are on the helicopter private pilot written?
60 scored questions plus 5 unscored validation questions, 2 hours, three answer choices per question and 70% to pass (FAA Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix and the PSI PRH bulletin).
What is the PRH pass rate?
89.88% of 939 attempts passed in 2025, with an average score of 81.57% (FAA CY2025 Airman Knowledge Test Volume Report).
Is the helicopter written harder than the airplane written?
The pass rates are almost the same (89.88% for PRH and 89.56% for PAR in 2025), but the PRH puts 23% of its questions on emergency operations, so the content is weighted differently.
Do I need an endorsement to take the PRH?
Yes: an instructor endorsement or a pilot-school graduation certificate. After a failure you need an endorsement for additional training (14 CFR 61.49).
Written and reviewed by Renzo Madueño
Former Airbus A320 First Officer (Avianca), FAA commercial pilot · Founder, Rotate Pilot
The questions are the FAA's own words. The FAA does not publish an answer key, so each answer here was worked out against the regulations and handbooks in force today, and every explanation names its source so you can check it yourself. Questions whose answer changed with newer rules were left out. Found something wrong? Tell us and we fix it.
Last reviewed . Rotate Pilot is independent and not affiliated with the FAA, PSI or any aviation authority.
